I know that different cultures have different "musical ears", so to speak. Is it that to the Greek ear, the difference between the larger or smaller interval between vou and ga is not as noticeable? To me it is quite noticeable. However I know that to some American ears, the soft chromatic vs hard chromatic sound is not distinguishable without much ear-training, nor is the flattened vou in ni-pa-vou of plagal fourth diatonic distinguishable from the western diatonic scale with the vou slightly raised, as if playing C-D-E / do-re-mi on a piano.