Question about recording

evangelos

Ευάγγελος Σολδάτος
Does anyone know the history behind legetos and how or when it changed? Do conservatories address the situation at all when they teach legetos? We have clear recordings from this century (see earlier posts) so it's not clear to me how the tradition diverged. How common is the larger interval legetos versus the smaller interval legetos in Greece?
I said it depends on which other modes (ήχοι) collaborate. Everything has been saved in oral tradition. No conservatory explains with accurately this and all other major things about parallage (παραλλαγή). Nobody has noticed this flexibility of legetos but me. This approach is mine according my reaserch. I say it is true becouse it is functionable to me and to my students. Thus you can chant anything, no more spooky melodies!
 

brucewayne

Νέο μέλος
I said it depends on which other modes (ήχοι) collaborate. Everything has been saved in oral tradition. No conservatory explains with accurately this and all other major things about parallage (παραλλαγή). Nobody has noticed this flexibility of legetos but me. This approach is mine according my reaserch. I say it is true becouse it is functionable to me and to my students. Thus you can chant anything, no more spooky melodies!
What I meant was how do conservatories address this in light of clear evidence (i.e. recordings from less than a hundred years ago)? It just seems odd that no one asks their teacher why they are being taught a legetos that sounds different than these classical recordings.

I know that different cultures have different "musical ears", so to speak. Is it that to the Greek ear, the difference between the larger or smaller interval between vou and ga is not as noticeable? To me it is quite noticeable. However I know that to some American ears, the soft chromatic vs hard chromatic sound is not distinguishable without much ear-training, nor is the flattened vou in ni-pa-vou of plagal fourth diatonic distinguishable from the western diatonic scale with the vou slightly raised, as if playing C-D-E / do-re-mi on a piano.
 

evangelos

Ευάγγελος Σολδάτος
What I meant was how do conservatories address this in light of clear evidence (i.e. recordings from less than a hundred years ago)? It just seems odd that no one asks their teacher why they are being taught a legetos that sounds different than these classical recordings..
I understund what you're saying but the mob mentality and the psychology of crowd behavior can convice for the opposite for years to centuries. It was only me who was asking my teascher these questions about the praxis vs theory incompatibility. Finally I serched the sources and the recordings on my own (Dr. George Michalakis helped me a lot, he had noticed before me that the interval of Ni-Pa can be bigger than we thought in all scales and modes)

I know that different cultures have different "musical ears", so to speak. Is it that to the Greek ear, the difference between the larger or smaller interval between vou and ga is not as noticeable? To me it is quite noticeable. However I know that to some American ears, the soft chromatic vs hard chromatic sound is not distinguishable without much ear-training, nor is the flattened vou in ni-pa-vou of plagal fourth diatonic distinguishable from the western diatonic scale with the vou slightly raised, as if playing C-D-E / do-re-mi on a piano.
This problem to distingusish the half semitone difference is not new, it has been reported by ancient Greek theorist Ploutarchos (I have posted an artickle here for this, which is the root of all other problems ).
By the way the vou in plagal fourth is not flat but it is sharp! One thinks it is flat because Pa is always sharp a harmonic diesis (half semitone, see again here Ni-Pa )
 
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