On the φθόγγος of Ἦχος Πρῶτος and the Ancient Dorian

Sorry for writing in English, but my Greek is not good enough, and if I tried writing in Greek, I may commit a lot of mistakes, and make myself misunderstood. But feel free to answer in Greek if you wish, I think I'll still be able to understand.

Traditionally, our Church Fathers identified Ἦχος Πρῶτος with the Dorian mode of the Ancients.
But the problem is, how can that happen?

The scale of the Dorian tetrachord is traditionally said to be semitone-tone-tone, whereas Ἦχος Πρῶτος is Ἐλάσσων Τόνος - Έλάχιστος Τόνος - Μείζων Τόνος (10-8-12 in 72-EDO).

I think the solution to this problem lies in the history of our music.

In the old times, the Aulos was thought to have been evenly spaced.
Based on Kathleen Schlesinger's research in Arabic and Greek Music, the tuning for the Dorian Mode would be:
11/10 - 10/9 - 9/8 - 8/7 - 14/13 - 13/12 - 12/11
Which would look like this on a scale from Πα to Πα΄:
Aulos Dorian.png
This looks very similar to the "equidistant" diatonic of Ptolemy:Ptolemy Diatonic.png
Ptolemy's scale seems to be a harmonized version of the Dorian of the Aulos Modes, where Πα-Δι is a Perfect Fourth (4/3), and Πα-Κε is a Perfect Fifth (3/2).

Then, problem arises if we want to go below Ὑπάτη Μέσων (Πα), towards Λίχανος Ὑπάτων (Νη), that is the beginning of the Phrygian Octave species.
Normally, the Dorian Mode is not heptaphonic, but tetraphonic, meaning it follows the Wheel system. This can clearly be seen in the Enharmonic genus, where the ratio interval between Λίχανος Ὑπάτων and Ὑπάτη Μέσων is 9/8, when it should be 5/4, in an heptaphonic system.
Therefore, the distance between the Λίχανος Ὑπάτων and Ὑπάτη Μέσων in our diatonic is a Whole Tone (Μείζων Τόνος):
Equable Diatonic Ni-Ke.png
Problem arises when goes from the Dorian Mode on Ὑπάτη Μέσων (Πα) to the Phrygian one on Λίχανος Ὑπάτων (Νη).
The problem is that, whereas the Πα-Δι is in harmony, with a Perfect Fourth (4/3), the Νη-Γα interval is not, as the Γα-Δι is not a Whole Tone (Μείζων Τόνος). Therefore, Γα has to be lowered to allow for a perfect fourth, which brings us to the following scale:
Al-Farabi Diatonic.pngWhich is in fact, exactly the tuning used by Al-Farabi: 9/8, 12/11, 88/81, and also the one used by our great teacher Χρύσανθος ὁ ἐκ Μαδύτων, as we see in the Μέγα Θεωρετικόν, on page 99:
Chrysanth intervals.png
For his 12-9-7 tuning, it is in fact a result of logarithmic compromise, because he had to round up some intervals:
He divided the perfect fifth into 40 equal parts, meaning that 9/8 in his 40 equal division of the fifth would be:
Calculation whole tone.png
Which would be round up to 12.
Then, the Ἐλάσσων Τόνος would be the in his system:
Calculation minor tone.png
Which would be round up to 9.
As a result, the minimum tone would be calculated through simple arithmetics: 40-12-12-9=7

As for the tuning of the diatonic Dorian used by Archytas, 28/27 - 8/7 - 9/8, which would look like this:
Archytas Diatonic.png
It is in fact the same as our Ἦχος Πλάγιος τοῦ Πρώτου Ἐνἁρμόνιος Βου Ὑφέσις:Βου Υφεσις.png

In fact, it is very interesting that in the Middle Eastern maqam system, we have something very similar.

Our Ἦχος Πρῶτος / Ἦχος Πλάγιος τοῦ Πρώτου in the 10-8-12 (or 9-9-12) intervals is called al-Maqam al-Bayati, whereas the 4-14-12 for Ἦχος Πλάγιος τοῦ Πρώτου Ἐνἁρμόνιος Βου Ὑφέσις is called al-Maqam al-Bayati al-Kurd (which is often simplified to Kurd), showing us that Maqam Kurd is in fact a variant of Maqam Bayat, the same way we and the Ancients had the variants of a higher Πα-Βου interval and of a lower one.

The syntonic tuning 6-12-12 is just a tuning where Archytas' 1/3 tone is raised to a Pythagorean λεῖμμα, in order to allow for equal whole tones, giving us:
Syntonic Tuning.png

As for the tuning of the Patriarchal Comission in 1883, that is 12,23 - 9,65 - 7,99, it is not that different from the scales proposed by Al-Farabi and our 3 great Teachers. 9,65 vs 9,04, it is a very small difference, hard to notice, especially when singing at a very fast pace.
It was a result of descriptive investigation of the way our Psaltes sung. There will always be differences between theory and practice, especially because natural singing has small sensitizations, especially when doing special vocal techniques.

The Νη-Do equivalency was good as a descriptive tool, especially using the Do (C) as a base from which to tune the Νη and allow smooth singing, but it is not accurate from a historical point of view, as we see above.

Later attempts from scholars to conflate the Πα-Βου to Re-Mi were abusive, and not only detrimental to future research in the history of Byzantine and Ancient Greek music, but also damaging to many generations of Psaltes.
In Greece, this Westernization didn't damage the traditional Psaltes too much, but in Romania, in A.I. Cuza's time, and in communist times, with Nicolae Lungu, there was forced Westernization of our Byzantine intervals (imposed through severe persecution of our Psaltes) led to severe damage, that only now is getting healed; in fact, Psaltic Music was only kept alive thanks to a very small number of survivors of this persecution, that is people like Iustin Pârvu, from which most Romanian psaltes learnt, and where content was lacking, they had to copy Greek Psaltes.
Even though it ended up being a failure, we have to still remember the Western scholars Tillyard and Wellesz, which tried to "resurrect" Medieval Byzantine chant in Greece, where they tried to get rid not only of our very fine intervals, but also of our exegesis, our great signs and cheironomia, our rhythm, replacing it with with plainchant that they thought was the way Gregorian music was sung (in fact, there is a lot of research nowadays proving that 19th and 20th century approaches were flawed and that Gregorian music likely had a rhythm and was not plainchant, as previously believed). This was a huge attack from the Western scholars to our traditions, where they showed a clear Orientalist behaviour, trying to save ancient culture that was good from the "savages" who destroy it, that is us, as only they, the Western scholars, are the ultimate authority and the West is the "pure, uncorrupted" bearer of tradition, so they had to "restore" Byzantine music to "its old glory", because "Byzantine music couldn't have sounded strange to Western ears"; the situation in Western academic research is starting to improve, but we should always take their research with a lot of skepticism, and not let them impose their worldview on our traditions.

I am open to hearing comments, objections, to see where we can improve on our knowledge of Byzantine and Ancient Greek music.
 

emakris

Μέλος
If you take aphorisms like "our Church Fathers identified Ἦχος Πρῶτος with the Dorian mode of the Ancients" as granted (it was not our Church Fathers, it was the Προθεωρία της Παπαδικής about 1300, following the Western theory of earlier centuries) and try to prove them mathematically, there is really not much to discuss. You have to do historical research first.
 
If you take aphorisms like "our Church Fathers identified Ἦχος Πρῶτος with the Dorian mode of the Ancients" as granted (it was not our Church Fathers, it was the Προθεωρία της Παπαδικής about 1300, following the Western theory of earlier centuries) and try to prove them mathematically, there is really not much to discuss. You have to do historical research first.

I think I misused the word Church Fathers.
When I referred to the Church Fathers, I meant our forefathers in the Orthodox Church, especially the Great Teachers, that are Χρύσανθος ὁ ἐκ Μαδύτων, Χουρμούζιος ὁ Χαρτοφύλαξ and Γρηγόριος Πρωτοφάλτης, not necessarily to the Holy Fathers.

Χρύσανθος identifies Ἦχος Πρῶτος with the Dorian mode of the Ancients in his Μέγα Θεωρετικόν, on page 145:
Chrysanth Protos = Dorian.png

On the origin of this identification of Protos with the Dorian, I did not know the first mention.
Still, it shows that if it was since the 1300's, that this is a very ancient idea.
Now, we have to see how we can make the historical connection between those three: the Ancient Greeks - Arabs and Persians (al-Farabi) - Byzantine music theory.

My research is in its very infancy, it is very hard to find enough material to study, as I do not know where to look for very often.
I did read Chrysanth's Mega Theoretikon, Psachos' Parasymantike, lots of articles by Alexander Lingas, one article by Ioannis Arvanitis, a couple by Tillyard and Wellesz, listened to a couple of conferences, and scraped all I could find on the forum, but it always feels like it is not enough.
I will read the Protheoria too, to see the contents in detail (although it seems pretty similar to other treatises I already read).
Anything else you can recommend me?

Would you rather say that there was a discontinuity when it comes to the tradition of Ancient Greek music, that it likely died after the conversion of the Greeks to Orthodox Christianity, or that it did survive as a tradition, at least in the secular music?
I do know of the Oxyrhynchus hymn, written in Ancient Greek vocal notation, but then, we see centuries later, a different notation emerge, that is the ekphonetic notation, from which our Byzantine neumes evolved.
Would you rather say that the Persians and Arabs studied Ancient Greek music theory only through the manuscripts, or that they were also taught music through a living tradition that was preserved even at that time?
If we had more sheets of ancient music from the period of the 3rd century up to the 10th century, the relations between the Ancient Greek modes and Byzantine ones would be a lot more clear, as we could do an extensive comparative research of all those songs, and see how the Byzantine modes emerged.

I used mathematics to fill the gaps for the low amount of historical material I had available, and I do avow that I did skip (or rather had to skip) a lot of steps as a result.
 
The correct πρώτος ήχος is the ancient Dorian with the semitone as first interval.
The 19th century theory is wrong.
Here I explain the correct mapping of now to ancient chords. Seee the diagrams

Thanks a lot for the information, I'm currently on my way to reading the article, although my reading speed for Modern Greek is quite slow, as I'm not that used to it as of yet.
I'll get back to you once I finish reading your article.
 
Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
I think I misused the word Church Fathers.
Χρύσανθος identifies Ἦχος Πρῶτος with the Dorian mode of the Ancients in his Μέγα Θεωρετικόν, on page 145:
View attachment 114337
The passage you have reproduced photographically, sir, could be translated like this - if this echos [the first one, protus] is the same with the ancient Dorian mode, then.... Chrysanthos uses a similar syntax, refering to the equivalence between pA and the Western system. He writes, elsewhere - ... if we suppose that pA is re then... if we suppose that pA is la then.... the second hypothesis seems the more plausible one, judging from the instruments and other factors. If = there are some [books ?] that maintain that... This is, generally, speaking, Chrysanthos's style.
 
The passage you have reproduced photographically, sir, could be translated like this - if this echos [the first one, protus] is the same with the ancient Dorian mode, then.... Chrysanthos uses a similar syntax, refering to the equivalence between pA and the Western system. He writes, elsewhere - ... if we suppose that pA is re then... if we suppose that pA is la then.... the second hypothesis seems the more plausible one, judging from the instruments and other factors. If = there are some [books ?] that maintain that... This is, generally, speaking, Chrysanthos's style.

Totally true.

Then, the main question should be: do the scale with Βου ὑφεσις and that with the natural Βου go back to the same original mode in the Ancient Greek music system, or were they originally two different modes?
There must be a reason the scale with semitone-tone-tone is included in the Α΄ -ΠΛ. Α΄ category.
 
Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
Totally true.

Then, the main question should be: do the scale with Βου ὑφεσις and that with the natural Βου go back to the same original mode in the Ancient Greek music system, or were they originally two different modes?
There must be a reason the scale with semitone-tone-tone is included in the Α΄ -ΠΛ. Α΄ category.
A very simple answer would be that the echos protus is the first note of the Phrygian mode, in some ancient, late ancient or medieval classification. First would mean πρῶτο τάστο, the first hole on a given aulos etc., in brief - the first note after the tonic. But I cannot be sure. ps. The "phrygian mode" even today from E in the west denotes the lesser tone (ἐλάσσων τόνος). mi-fa, E-F, πΑ-Βου (in Chrysanthos's book=12/11)
 
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A very simple answer would be that the echos protus is the first note of the Phrygian mode, in some ancient, late ancient or medieval classification. First would mean πρῶτο τάστο, the first hole on a given aulos etc., in brief - the first note after the tonic. But I cannot be sure. ps. The "phrygian mode" even today from E in the west denotes the lesser tone (ἐλάσσων τόνος). mi-fa, E-F, πΑ-Βου (in Chrysanthos's book=12/11)

I have a hard time understanding the part about E-F denoting έλάσσων τόνος, because E-F (Mi-Fa) is usually considered a semitone, the smallest tone in the Western diatonic scale (1/2 tone in 12-EDO, or 16/15 in Just Intonation), whereas έλάσσων τόνος 12/11 (150.637059 cents) is not our smallest interval in our Diatonic scale (at least in modern times), as we have ἐλαχιστος τόνος Βου-Γα, that is 88/81 (143.497939 cents), according to Chrysanthos.
 
Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
I have a hard time understanding the part about E-F denoting έλάσσων τόνος, because E-F (Mi-Fa) is usually considered a semitone, the smallest tone in the Western diatonic scale (1/2 tone in 12-EDO, or 16/15 in Just Intonation), whereas έλάσσων τόνος 12/11 (150.637059 cents) is not our smallest interval in our Diatonic scale (at least in modern times), as we have ἐλαχιστος τόνος Βου-Γα, that is 88/81 (143.497939 cents), according to Chrysanthos.
True. But 88/81 has been criticized as a non-tone, meaning simply the difference between a tone, a lesser tone and what has been left off the 1/4 of the whole chord. This 1/4 is not a diatonic division, it is a "compository" division, for example a melody is first played on the tonic, then played from the 1/4, the 1/3, the 1/10 etc. of the chord, transforming itself accordingly.

It is true that the "lesser tone" would be only re-mi and sol-la, as shown in Chysanthos's table above, which repeats Zarlino>Rameau>d'Alembert or Rousseau, I suppose, from the Encyclopédie. The "real" greek diatonic intervals would be ptolemaic, however, as you have mentionned in your first message, i.e. given by evenly-tuned instruments.

This is, I think, the crucial difference between the greek "ear" and the western "ear" - the greek one being "ptolemaic". I need much more proof to show that semitones (like the one you mentionned) dieseis, hypheseis are efforts to put the "ptolemaic" system into a "pythagorean" frame, by having, for example, a moveable Βου (or si) and a moveable (or fa) changing values from tone to semitone : 9/8, 10/9, 11/10, 12/11.... Thank you! (ps. that the semitone mi-fa plays the "part" of the ΕΛΑΣΣΩΝ ΤΟΝΟΣ, on the "western" Phrygian mode - that is what I meant).
 
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Shota

Παλαιό Μέλος
I think I misused the word Church Fathers.
When I referred to the Church Fathers, I meant our forefathers in the Orthodox Church, especially the Great Teachers, that are Χρύσανθος ὁ ἐκ Μαδύτων, Χουρμούζιος ὁ Χαρτοφύλαξ and Γρηγόριος Πρωτοφάλτης, not necessarily to the Holy Fathers.

It’s all Chrysanthos’ work. Gregory and Chourmouzios were both men of practice and could care less about imagined historical niceties. Church musicians functioned perfectly fine for centuries without knowing whether the First Mode was Dorian or not. Chrysanthos, on the other hand, was influenced by the French Enlightenment.
 

polykarpos

Polykarpos Polykarpidis
It’s all Chrysanthos’ work. Gregory and Chourmouzios were both men of practice and could care less about imagined historical niceties. Church musicians functioned perfectly fine for centuries without knowing whether the First Mode was Dorian or not. Chrysanthos, on the other hand, was influenced by the French Enlightenment.

I do not totally disagree with that. Nevertheless, I would just like to make it clear that this view has nothing to do with the Enlightenment, it is much older. We already meet her in the theory of Hagiopolites. I think that this correspondence either has a dose of truth or is related to the need for a sense of continuity in Greek music. Of course, both can apply. What is your opinion on this?
 
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Shota

Παλαιό Μέλος
Nevertheless, I would just like to make it clear that this view has nothing to do with the Enlightenment, it is much older.

I meant that Gregory and Chourmouzios are not responsible for the historical material in Chrysanthos’ theory book.

Sure, there are Byzantine treatises where links with the Ancient Greek music are explored. But that doesn’t seem to be Chrysanthos’ source of inspiration, or at least not his sole source of inspiration.

One shouldn’t forget that with foundation of the independent Greek state a few years later a serious effort was made to drop the “barbaric” modern Greek dialect in favour of restoration of the Ancient Greek. Katharevousa was thought of as an intermediate step in this utopian project, but acquired an independent status once it became clear even to its champions that the restoration idea was doomed to fail. Obviously this all had roots in the West.
 
Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
It is perfectly true that Chrysanthos's work is part of what K. Th. Dimaras has called Neohellenic Enlightenment, that he was on very friendly terms with the famous periodical Logios Hermes, that his reform was enthousiastically received by Coray, and that Coray, the "apostle" in a sense, of the Enlightenment in Greece had come, since his youth, to think that the popular music of his native island, Chios, was "barbaric" and that its "lyrarides" (viol players) had to be tought to play "a little more harmoniously", step by step. In other terms, westernization and enlightenment were nearly total equivalents in the mind of Coray. https://www.pemptousia.gr/wp-content/uploads/2015/06/Χρύσανθος.pdf

But, it would be risky to say that this was also the case with Chrysanthos's mind. There were different tendencies, inside the Neohellenic Enlightenment. Chrysanthos either does not mention his sources, or he does it, but without system. What is a fact, howewever, is that he had sources oral or written that have not been identified. The most characteristic case is his 12/11 (see above,12/11 which is, I tend to think, of the homalon diatonon) and was lost, it seems, since low antiquity, emerging only in Al-Qidi's and Al-Farabi's writings. It is doubtful if he would have adopted any harmonization of the greek ecclesiastical music, as Coray almost surely would). To see Enlightenment as "destructive" of the past can be also a post-Enlightenment stance, I do not speak of the participants in this conversation, but I want to say that even in his view of Enlightenment Chrysanthos has surely preserved some of the tradition and perhaps also that is exactly what he wanted.
 
Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
ps. Why the mode beginning with pA=the 1st one would have its next at an interval of 12/11 as Chrysanthos states? Perhaps it could because 12/11= the first step in a 6-note even-step scale (1, 12/11, 6/5, 4/3, 3/2, 12/7, 2).

So the 1st echos, the 1st "note" would mean the 1st one after the pentatonic. The next one (Βου, B, "the second one, si, a 7-step scale) would be followed by 14/13 instead of 12/11, etc.

For the dorian mode being originally a pentatonic scale, one could look (with some critical caution) at: Samuel Baud-Bovy, Le dorien était-il un mode pentatonique? Revue de Musicologie T. 64, No. 2 (1978), pp. 153-180, Société Française de Musicologie (in french).
 
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Κ

Κωσταντής1

Guest
ps2 if one could prove, with absolute or some, at least, certainty, that the "dorian" mode is in fact the pentatonic scale (ΔικΕ νΗπΑΓα, la-si-do-re / fa-sol ) encrusted in both Chrysanthos's and Zarlino's diatonic scales, as shown on the table, then perhaps one would be able to handle the relation of the byzantine system το the western one, as well as the relation of the octoechos to the modes with ancient tribal names, with some success, both historical and musical.
 
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the "dorian" mode is in fact the pentatonic scale (ΔικΕ νΗπΑΓα, la-si-do-re / fa-sol ) encrusted in both Chrysanthos's and Zarlino's diatonic scales
According to all ancient sources, the Dorian mode is the one from hepate meson (Mi-Pa) to nete diazeugmenon (mi-pa)
In the diatonic genus this means the scale (Mi-Fa-Sol-la)≈(si-do-re-mi) and (la-sib-do-re) in synemenon tetrachord.
 

evangelos

Ευάγγελος Σολδάτος
According to all ancient sources, the Dorian mode is the one from hepate meson (Mi-Pa) to nete diazeugmenon (mi-pa)
In the diatonic genus this means the scale (Mi-Fa-Sol-la)≈(si-do-re-mi) and (la-sib-do-re) in synemenon tetrachord.
The hepate mi to be the pa, the one who first mentioned this it was me, please write down your sourses
 
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evangelos

Ευάγγελος Σολδάτος
The tree reformers of music theory did wrong on mapping. The correct mapping is this, in order to agree the ancient harmonic theory to now!
The natural pa-vou interval is semitone, it is not a tone! By the correct mapping all harmonic problems are resolved, varys is two whole tones below the pa. Ni-pa is getting bigger becouse of soft diatonic genos property, so you have the correct traditional sound !
The problem of wrong mapping the correct harmonicst is that some newer musicians confused the ancient harmonic schemes with the Aristoksenos tones, these two are different terms!(see Kleonides "introduction to harmonics"-Κλεωνίδης Εισαγωγή Αρμονική)
 

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